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This may be an utter bogon, but it's at least amusing. Anyone got a link to substantiate it?
I'm trying to decide how this (if true--it sure looks like it up there) and dyslexia interact with each other.
Found in
jwz's journal, via
novalis's.
"Aoccdrnig to rscheearch at Cmabrigde Uinervtisy, it deosn't mttaer in waht oredr the ltteers in a wrod are, the olny iprmoetnt tihng is taht the frist and lsat ltteer be at the rghit pclae. The rset can be a total mses and you can sitll raed it wouthit a porbelm. Tihs is bcuseae the huamn mnid deos not raed ervey lteter by istlef, but the wrod as a wlohe."
I'm trying to decide how this (if true--it sure looks like it up there) and dyslexia interact with each other.
Found in
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![[livejournal.com profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/external/lj-userinfo.gif)
no subject
Date: 2003-09-14 11:14 am (UTC)if the theory is correct, it goes a long way toward explaining pre-1890s orthography, where variant spellings were common and even the very educated seemingly spelled things any which way. If it's spelled "correctly enough" for people to get the meaning, who cares?
no subject
Date: 2003-09-14 03:33 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2003-09-14 03:22 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2003-09-14 06:08 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2003-09-15 04:27 am (UTC)